Neil_F
Coach
I'm looking for some help here. I was discussing the topic of education with some friends and colleagues when someone made a point that the entire system should be privatised. We all agreed that the universal provision of education was a good thing. My colleague said that didn't necessarily mean that the state had to be the provider. Why could the state not pay for every child to be educated at a private institution?
His point here was that an amount per pupil could be agreed (say what it is now with regional variances and perhaps even a pupil for lower income families). A parent could enrol their child at any registered school, all of which were private and able to make a profit. There would obviously have to be restrictions on top of fee to prevent it being the subsidy of existing private school fees. His argument was that it would introduce competition and innovation such that pupils would benefit from an increase in standards.
So, why wouldn't this be a good idea?
His point here was that an amount per pupil could be agreed (say what it is now with regional variances and perhaps even a pupil for lower income families). A parent could enrol their child at any registered school, all of which were private and able to make a profit. There would obviously have to be restrictions on top of fee to prevent it being the subsidy of existing private school fees. His argument was that it would introduce competition and innovation such that pupils would benefit from an increase in standards.
So, why wouldn't this be a good idea?