Not SUFC related, but...

fbm · Jun 23, 2004

why is it that the 2-2 draw between Denmark and Sweden was enough to eliminate Italy REGARDLESS of their result?

If they had matched the Swedes performance and beaten Bulgaria 5-0 then their goal difference would have been higher than Denmarks, so how does that work? Is goal difference secondary in this tournament to goals scored against teams you tie with?

McScriven · Jun 23, 2004

Goal difference comes second basically. It's the result from when you played the side above you that matters.

fbm · Jun 23, 2004

Fair enough. Thank you for clarifying that... I'd completely missed that rule change.

Seems harsh though.

TrueBlue · Jun 23, 2004

poor italians

BluePartridge · Jun 23, 2004

[b said:
Quote[/b] (fbm @ June 23 2004,08:56)]Fair enough. Thank you for clarifying that... I'd completely missed that rule change.

Seems harsh though.

The rule change happened in Euro '96 I do believe!